Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 01.07.2025 12:45

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If tariffs don't work, why do so many nations still use them?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

Even Captain James T. Kirk was trapped in a woman's body. Don't you think he'd support trans people?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Hello I am 17 year old boy and I am interested in transgender why?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.